Catholic Q&A

Robbi · 10-05-2004, 06:02 PM

Thanx for that, I will check them out.
God Bless,

Rob

goldenchild · 10-07-2004, 12:12 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Robbi

OK, a fresh question here regarding the "gifts of the Holy Spirit".
I read "1 Cor 12", and the commentry on it and left me still a bit hazy on what its about.

Why im asking? Well, im curious as to know if a "psychics" ability is from the Holy Spirit. If they confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, then you could say their ability is a gift from the Holy Spirit.
If they dont confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, ie: a non Christian, then are their abilities from Satan, or is it still from the Holy Spirit, but they refuse to believe in Christianity?

Okay I'm ready to try addressing this part of your last question.
A "psychic" ability is from God. A Prophet has this "psychic" ability. Instead of typing out a whole response(as I will surely not put it as well) here is a good explanation of prophecy and all that stuff. But in regards to "psychic" ability, yeah anyone can have it and it's from God. But how many people really have this gift? Not as many as are advertised, a great many of these are fakes. http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/12473a.htm

I should also say that not every single case of "psychic" ability is necessarily of the Holy Spirit. If it does not conform to the truth then it's obviously not of God. But anyone believer or otherwise could be a true "pyschic" and recieve this from the Spirit.

KFBobInsanesMom · 10-07-2004, 12:46 AM

I was watching a Catholic mass on television a few nights ago ( I have watched several in the past few weeks ) , but for the first time I noticed that when taking communion, the people took of the bread, but did not drink of the cup. Could you explain this please.

goldenchild · 10-07-2004, 03:04 AM

Sure. This is a practice of some people. We are not required to partake of both. We believe that Christ's body is present fully and wholly in both what look to be bread and wine. Just as John 6 tells us that we can be saved by partaking of the bread(without mention of a cup). Also in 1 Corinthians it says ""Whosoever shall eat this bread or drink the chalice of the Lord unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and of the blood of the Lord" Either can be recieved. The whole of Christ is present in each. When we recieve Christ in the Eucharist it's not like taking a piece of an arm or an ear or whatnot and eating it. The whole of Christ is present in each piece of the consecrated bread and wine. Even if one person recieved just a crumb of the Eucharist or a sip of the cup, and another person recieved a whole big host of Eucharist and a whole cup of wine, they would still each be recieving the same exact amount of Jesus, all of Him. I hope this helped some. If not, then here's a good article to read on the subject.
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/04175a.htm

goldenchild · 10-07-2004, 10:59 AM

I should also mention that I also normally recieve just the consecrated host.

KFBobInsanesMom · 10-07-2004, 11:47 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by goldenchild

Sure. This is a practice of some people. We are not required to partake of both. We believe that Christ's body is present fully and wholly in both what look to be bread and wine. Just as John 6 tells us that we can be saved by partaking of the bread(without mention of a cup). Also in 1 Corinthians it says ""Whosoever shall eat this bread or drink the chalice of the Lord unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and of the blood of the Lord" Either can be recieved. The whole of Christ is present in each. When we recieve Christ in the Eucharist it's not like taking a piece of an arm or an ear or whatnot and eating it. The whole of Christ is present in each piece of the consecrated bread and wine. Even if one person recieved just a crumb of the Eucharist or a sip of the cup, and another person recieved a whole big host of Eucharist and a whole cup of wine, they would still each be recieving the same exact amount of Jesus, all of Him. I hope this helped some. If not, then here's a good article to read on the subject.
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/04175a.htm

Well, yes and no concerning whether it helped. I went and read John 6, it does mention both the cup and the bread: John 6:53-56 53 So Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood, you have no life in yourselves. 54 "He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day. 55 "For My flesh is true food, and My blood is true drink. 56 "He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood abides in Me, and I in him.

You must have been referring to the next two verses.....57 "As the living Father sent Me, and I live because of the Father, so he who eats Me, he also will live because of Me. 58 "This is the bread which came down out of heaven; not as the fathers ate and died; he who eats this bread will live forever." But here He is comparing Himself to the manna, not the bread of communion.

Guess I'm not understanding how Christ body and blood are fully and wholly in each element individually. Is that covered in the link you provided??

2ManArmy · 10-07-2004, 12:55 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by KFBobInsanesMom

Well, yes and no concerning whether it helped. I went and read John 6, it does mention both the cup and the bread: John 6:53-56 53 So Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood, you have no life in yourselves. 54 "He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day. 55 "For My flesh is true food, and My blood is true drink. 56 "He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood abides in Me, and I in him.

You must have been referring to the next two verses.....57 "As the living Father sent Me, and I live because of the Father, so he who eats Me, he also will live because of Me. 58 "This is the bread which came down out of heaven; not as the fathers ate and died; he who eats this bread will live forever." But here He is comparing Himself to the manna, not the bread of communion.

Guess I'm not understanding how Christ body and blood are fully and wholly in each element individually. Is that covered in the link you provided??

Go on to read about the Last Supper (try Luke 22:19, Mark 14:22) and it should click beautifully

KFBobInsanesMom · 10-07-2004, 05:53 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by 2ManArmy

Go on to read about the Last Supper (try Luke 22:19, Mark 14:22) and it should click beautifully

I have read it many times. Jesus gave both the bread and the cup. The passage in John says both are needed. Guess I need to do more searching online to try to understand how it can be that the bread is both body and blood, and the cup is both body and blood and both are not necessary.

2ManArmy · 10-07-2004, 08:18 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by KFBobInsanesMom

I have read it many times. Jesus gave both the bread and the cup. The passage in John says both are needed. Guess I need to do more searching online to try to understand how it can be that the bread is both body and blood, and the cup is both body and blood and both are not necessary.

Yes, you can find many sources such as the Catechism of the Catholic Church (which is posted online in full), and many good Catholic sites have articles on those kinds of questions. Sorry if my reply didn't quite address what you asked, I thought you were asking something else regarding the Eucharist.

God bless.

KFBobInsanesMom · 10-07-2004, 11:50 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by 2ManArmy

Yes, you can find many sources such as the Catechism of the Catholic Church (which is posted online in full), and many good Catholic sites have articles on those kinds of questions. Sorry if my reply didn't quite address what you asked, I thought you were asking something else regarding the Eucharist.

God bless.

No problem, I'll do a search on google for the Catechism of the Catholic Church, thanks for the suggestion.

elijah77jc · 10-08-2004, 12:39 AM

so what's the difference between a mortal sin and an ordinary sin?

goldenchild · 10-08-2004, 12:54 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by KFBobInsanesMom

Well, yes and no concerning whether it helped. I went and read John 6, it does mention both the cup and the bread: John 6:53-56 53 So Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood, you have no life in yourselves. 54 "He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day. 55 "For My flesh is true food, and My blood is true drink. 56 "He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood abides in Me, and I in him.

You must have been referring to the next two verses.....57 "As the living Father sent Me, and I live because of the Father, so he who eats Me, he also will live because of Me. 58 "This is the bread which came down out of heaven; not as the fathers ate and died; he who eats this bread will live forever." But here He is comparing Himself to the manna, not the bread of communion.

Guess I'm not understanding how Christ body and blood are fully and wholly in each element individually. Is that covered in the link you provided??

Okay try this. This is from 1 Corinthians 11:26-29

"For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the death of the Lord until he comes. Therefore whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord unworthily will have to answer for the body and blood of the Lord. A person should examine himself, and so eat the bread and drink the cup. For anyone who eats and drinks without discerning the body, eats and drinks judgment on himself."

Here we have a couple of things to look at. "Therefore whoever eats the bread OR drinks the cup of the Lord unworthily will have to answer for the body AND blood of the Lord." So, if we eat EITHER the consecrated host or cup we answer for BOTH the body AND the blood. So the body AND blood is contained in BOTH the host and cup.

Again "For anyone who eats AND drinks without discerning the body, eats and drinks judgement on himself." This isn't as clear but implies that the body is contained in both the host and cup.

Any better? Or would you like me to find more?

goldenchild · 10-08-2004, 12:57 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by KFBobInsanesMom

No problem, I'll do a search on google for the Catechism of the Catholic Church, thanks for the suggestion.

Here's a search engine for the CCC. Basically type in what you want and it will pull up the stuff in the CCC that contains what you searched for.
http://www.christusrex.org/www2/kery...searchcat.html

Also, here is the CCC online. It's got the contents of the CCC, just click on what you want to look at.
http://www.vatican.va/archive/catechism/ccc_toc.htm

goldenchild · 10-08-2004, 01:10 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by elijah77jc

so what's the difference between a mortal sin and an ordinary sin?

Any sin is sin. But there are different levels of sin.
1 John 5:16-17
"If anyone sees his brother sinning, if the sin is not deadly, he should pray to God and he will give him life. This is only for those whose sin is not deadly. There is such a thing as deadly sin, about which I do not say that you should pray. All wrongdoing is sin, but there is sin that is not deadly."

Also, John 19:11 "Jesus answered (him), "You would have no power over me if it had not been given to you from above. For this reason the one who handed me over to you has the greater sin."

Sin that is deadly is what Catholics call Mortal sin. Sin that isn't deadly but injures you're relationship with God is called Venial sin. For a sin to be a mortal sin, three things must be present.

1. Grievous matter. The sin must be very serious. For instance, stealing a small inexpensive item is not as grave as stealing a very valuable item.

2. Sufficient Reflection. You must know the gravity of what you are doing at the time you did it. For example, if you stole something you thought was very valuable, such as a gem, and it turned out to be a false paste, the sin was still mortal because you thought the gem was valuable. Consequently, insane or severely retarded persons cannot be considered guilty of an outrage they might commit, since they did it without knowing what they are doing.

3. Full consent of Will. Suppose you killed someone accidentally in a hunting accident or in self-defense. You would not be guilty of murder, because you did not mean to kill the person.

KFBobInsanesMom · 10-08-2004, 01:18 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by goldenchild

Okay try this. This is from 1 Corinthians 11:26-29

"For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the death of the Lord until he comes. Therefore whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord unworthily will have to answer for the body and blood of the Lord. A person should examine himself, and so eat the bread and drink the cup. For anyone who eats and drinks without discerning the body, eats and drinks judgment on himself."

Here we have a couple of things to look at. "Therefore whoever eats the bread OR drinks the cup of the Lord unworthily will have to answer for the body AND blood of the Lord." So, if we eat EITHER the consecrated host or cup we answer for BOTH the body AND the blood. So the body AND blood is contained in BOTH the host and cup.

Again "For anyone who eats AND drinks without discerning the body, eats and drinks judgement on himself." This isn't as clear but implies that the body is contained in both the host and cup.

Any better? Or would you like me to find more?

Kinda see what you are saying, but I can't imagine an instance when you can eat worthily but drink unworthily ( or the opposite ), so I have always read that as an implied link between bread/body and cup/blood so the " or" never made a distinction to me. I'll have to think and study on that. There is a lot of command to do both around this passage and the one in John..... So, off to the links you gave.... thanks again.