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well part of my reason for asking this was the recent sodomy decision. is a due process of law restricted to the courts? Does an act of Congress count as a due process of law?
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The supreme court, in looking at several specific anti-sodomy laws, correctly asserted that they were clearly created to impose uneven sanction against a group of people (homosexuals), and that this violated the various equality ammendments of the constitution.
And no, an act of congress is not sufficient to thorw out the constitution.
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They obviously didn't do this at all, because we can see that a hundred years before and two hundred years after it was ratified there were sodomy laws.
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This doesn't appear to actually be an argument... just an appeal. Further, the ammendments violated were relatively recent. The "original" constitution does not protect from such laws (it also doesn't protect free speech or disallow slavery), but the current one does.
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The founding fathers obviously did not mean to legalize such acts, and that's what the Supreme Court is supposed to be determining--what the writers of The Constitution meant.
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You do realize that the constitution has been ammended as recently as the past 10 years? The court is suppsoed to interprete the constitution, not only the 200 year-old parts.
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But as it stands, the Supreme Court decision is just another product of public opinion, and therefore utterly worthless.
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You mean like this whole "democracy" thing?