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Unread 02-26-2016, 07:48 AM   #1
Psychic theo-philosopher
 
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Judgment being more harsh in the last day

So, I was considering the passage where Jesus says that it is better for a man to have a millstone hung around his neck and be cast at sea than to lead someone else into sin (context is children), and this is also echoed in James when it talks about not many should aspire to be teachers because they will be judged more harshly.

So my questions are as follows:
a) how can you be judged more harshly if you're a Christian? Christ has taken all negative judgment in our behalf, ja?
b) what difference does it make in the judgment? Punishment, rewards, etc.
c) what is the OT background to these statements, like is there a precedent already set in Mosaic law or in the prophets? Is there any obvious dependence for these claims?
d) how does this statement relate to other passages, like it being better at the last day for Sodom and Gomorrah than Korazin and Bethsaida (and Jerusalem)? Jesus says iirc that it was because they were shown miracles but did not repent, whereas S&G did not have such

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Unread 02-28-2016, 12:09 AM   #2
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Quote:
Originally Posted by athanatos View Post
So, I was considering the passage where Jesus says that it is better for a man to have a millstone hung around his neck and be cast at sea than to lead someone else into sin (context is children), and this is also echoed in James when it talks about not many should aspire to be teachers because they will be judged more harshly.

So my questions are as follows:
a) how can you be judged more harshly if you're a Christian? Christ has taken all negative judgment in our behalf, ja?
b) what difference does it make in the judgment? Punishment, rewards, etc.
c) what is the OT background to these statements, like is there a precedent already set in Mosaic law or in the prophets? Is there any obvious dependence for these claims?
d) how does this statement relate to other passages, like it being better at the last day for Sodom and Gomorrah than Korazin and Bethsaida (and Jerusalem)? Jesus says iirc that it was because they were shown miracles but did not repent, whereas S&G did not have such

I think those who have knowledge of sin, grace, and the resurrection are held to a higher standard because we are left "without excuse," as compared to somebody who may cry out at the judgment, "We did not have your laws and I never heard of Jesus. I did not know!" In other words, someone who has heard the reality of Jesus and still rejects it will be judged more harshly than someone who did not hear the gospel. This sort of ties into the bit about the millstone and not aspiring to be teachers, because to know the reality of sin and still lead somebody into it is to reject Christ. Similarly, to claim to know and then teach falsely is to lead somebody away from the truth of Christ.

As for what difference this makes in the judgment, I do not know and dare not entertain the notion that I might have an ounce of wisdom. I think this stretches back before Moses to Abraham, though. The law came about because man rejected God and needed to be shown the reality of sin. Abraham followed God in faith before there was any law. To have rejected God would have led him to eternal death. Paul seems to touch on this (Romans 5) in his teaching on justification by faith, and James pairs it up by saying that faith is not faith unless it is put into action. So our actions reveal our faith. So to lead somebody into sin is a reflection of our faithlessness toward God. To do this knowingly only makes the action more severer because it reveals not only our faithless toward God, but our rejection of His goodness. To knowingly lead someone away from Christ after He rose from the dead on our behalf is to crucify Him over again.

At least, that's sort of my take on it.
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