[OiBoyz]

Putting this here rather than Theology because I want to open the discussion outside the limitations of the Theology Forum. Mods feel free to move it if you deem it necessary.

My question: is it necessary to believe in Grace in order to be a recipient of Grace?

[1/2-Fast Player]

Please clarify a bit what you mean when you say "be a recipient of Grace."

"Grace" can mean divine sanctification, which I believe we receive only through faith in Christ.

"Grace" can also mean receiving unmerited divine aid, which I would say God extends to anyone He wants to, for reasons know only to the mind of God. Sometimes such grace brings a person to faith, but the faith does not always have to be there first.

Consider the story of Philip and the Ethiopian eunuch. The eunuch did not yet believe in God as far as we know, did not know about nor believe in God's grace until Philip explained it. But Philip's presence on the road to meet the eunuch was due to divine direction, and thus grace (meaning "unmeritied divine aid") was extended to the eunuch.

[OiBoyz]

I think I mean it in the first case. The reason I ask is that my mother rejects the notion of grace. Since Salvation, as I understand it, is totally by grace through faith. So if she rejects grace, relying on obedience, does she forfeit salvation?

[BillSPrestonEsq]

Originally Posted by OiBoyz

I think I mean it in the first case. The reason I ask is that my mother rejects the notion of grace. Since Salvation, as I understand it, is totally by grace through faith. So if she rejects grace, relying on obedience, does she forfeit salvation?

Yes. Because ultimately, if obedience is the standard, this is all about faith in one's own self and their ability to obey.

Consider what Paul said to the galatians in Chapter 3, that if they were circumcised, Christ would profit them nothing. The idea is identical except in one detail. The galatians had begun by faith and begun in the Spirit and were trusting in themselves for their sanctification. If Paul said that Christ would then profit them nothing...

I don't see how else there is to look at it.

Galatians 3:10For all who rely on works of the law are(N) under a curse; for it is written,(O) "Cursed be everyone who does not(P) abide by all things written in the Book of the Law, and do them." 11Now it is evident that(Q) no one is justified before God by the law, for(R) "The righteous shall live by faith."[d] 12But the law is not of faith, rather(S) "The one who does them shall live by them." 13Christ(T) redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us—for it is written,(U) "Cursed is everyone who is hanged(V) on a tree"— 14so that in Christ Jesus the blessing of Abraham might(W) come to the Gentiles, so that(X) we might receive(Y) the promised Spirit[e] through faith.

I wish I had a gentler thing to say, but scripture seems pretty cut and dry in Galatians.

[1/2-Fast Player]

I must agree with Bill that there is no salvation offered us other than through Christ. Without faith in Christ, we are damned by our sins.

[Ax]

Originally Posted by OiBoyz

I think I mean it in the first case. The reason I ask is that my mother rejects the notion of grace. Since Salvation, as I understand it, is totally by grace through faith. So if she rejects grace, relying on obedience, does she forfeit salvation?

As total compliance under the law is completely impossible, if you try to make it to heaven that way, you're going to fail.

In order to, under the law, qualify for salvation, one must be completely sin free. And we know from Romans that no-one is. None.

Under the law, sacrifices of blood were required for atonement. Does your mother sacrifice live stock to atone for her sins?

Does she cook on Saturdays? If she so much as makes a sandwich, that's not keeping the Sabbath under the law.

The law was imperfect, the Bible clearly states so in Hebrews. That's why Jesus was necessary as the sacrificial lamb to completely fulfill it and replace it with a new covenant.