[BillSPrestonEsq]

Originally Posted by Sean

The scripture does say that God hates divorce. Does it say that God hates murder? (That is an honest question...I don't think it does,but I could be wrong).

My comparison came from the Malachi 2:16 passage parallelism.

[BBart]

So am I wrong to interpret "husband of one wife" to mean that your devotions should be to your wife as in a one woman man and that it doesn't address marital status?

I base this on the fact that both Jesus and Paul spoke openly about divorce and allowable circumstances, and reason that if marital status was meant in the passages in 1 Timothy that it would have been directly addressed rather than left unclear. I am speaking about biblically allowable divorce after salvation.

[jthomas1600]

Originally Posted by BBart

So am I wrong to interpret "husband of one wife" to mean that your devotions should be to your wife as in a one woman man and that it doesn't address marital status?

I base this on the fact that both Jesus and Paul spoke openly about divorce and allowable circumstances, and reason that if marital status was meant in the passages in 1 Timothy that it would have been directly addressed rather than left unclear. I am speaking about biblically allowable divorce after salvation.

Actually something similar was discussed recently. I think you are right. I don't think it means you must be married.

What would the standard be for a single man and his dating life? Would dating around be forbidden? If the dating was platonic--would there be a problem with a single man in a position of church leadership dating say 3 different girls in a 2 year period? Not to derail the thread, just thought that was an interesting question to ponder.

[BillSPrestonEsq]

Originally Posted by BBart

So am I wrong to interpret "husband of one wife" to mean that your devotions should be to your wife as in a one woman man and that it doesn't address marital status?

I base this on the fact that both Jesus and Paul spoke openly about divorce and allowable circumstances, and reason that if marital status was meant in the passages in 1 Timothy that it would have been directly addressed rather than left unclear. I am speaking about biblically allowable divorce after salvation.

I would think that it could be, to a point. However, remarriage even under those circumstances is a whole 'nother can of worms. In a divorce in the church, at least one party should be under church discipline. Now I do think the passage would sort of require the man to be in an established household, so I would tend to think dating or remarriage would disqualify you.

[BBart]

Originally Posted by BillSPrestonEsq

I would think that it could be, to a point. However, remarriage even under those circumstances is a whole 'nother can of worms. In a divorce in the church, at least one party should be under church discipline. Now I do think the passage would sort of require the man to be in an established household, so I would tend to think dating or remarriage would disqualify you.

I would definately agree that if it is a divorce involving two believers then one would definately be outside of the biblical guidlines for the divorce. But would a divorce involving a non-believer as Paul describes in 1 Corinthians 7 disqualify a person from remarrying and still being able to serve?

[BillSPrestonEsq]

Originally Posted by BBart

I would definately agree that if it is a divorce involving two believers then one would definately be outside of the biblical guidlines for the divorce. But would a divorce involving a non-believer as Paul describes in 1 Corinthians 7 disqualify a person from remarrying and still being able to serve?

remarrying?

I can't exactly see what would let them with the words of Jesus, saying that whoever marries her that is divorced causes her to commit adultery.

[BBart]

Originally Posted by BillSPrestonEsq

remarrying?

I can't exactly see what would let them with the words of Jesus, saying that whoever marries her that is divorced causes her to commit adultery.

How about in 1 Corinthians 7:15 which states that if an unbeliever chooses to leave then the Christian man or woman are not bound? Wouldn't that free them to remarry?

Granted they marry someone who was previously unmarried. Which would leave out the possibility of adultery.

[BillSPrestonEsq]

Originally Posted by BBart

How about in 1 Corinthians 7:15 which states that if an unbeliever chooses to leave then the Christian man or woman are not bound? Wouldn't that free them to remarry?

Granted they marry someone who was previously unmarried. Which would leave out the possibility of adultery.

Would it?

Are you divorced?

[BBart]

Originally Posted by BillSPrestonEsq

Would it?

Are you divorced?

No I'm not divorced. Happily married for 20 years.

Where just going through this with our deacons. Traditionally we have never had a divorced man serve as deacon. There are people pushing that divorced men be allowed to serve and I'm just trying to get my thoughts around it.

[BillSPrestonEsq]

Originally Posted by BBart

No I'm not divorced. Happily married for 20 years.

Where just going through this with our deacons. Traditionally we have never had a divorced man serve as deacon. There are people pushing that divorced men be allowed to serve and I'm just trying to get my thoughts around it.

Good, I want to be careful what I say.


That said, I really don't see anything in 1 Corinthians 7 that would supersede Jesus' statement that remarriage is adultery. The fact that he nowhere says they are free to remarry seems unusual, considering that Paul is clear on the subject as goes widows.

[BBart]

Originally Posted by BillSPrestonEsq

Good, I want to be careful what I say.


That said, I really don't see anything in 1 Corinthians 7 that would supersede Jesus' statement that remarriage is adultery. The fact that he nowhere says they are free to remarry seems unusual, considering that Paul is clear on the subject as goes widows.

Matthew 19:9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery.”

Wouldn't it stand to reason with the words except for marital unfaithfulness in this verse that if anyone divorces his wife because of marital unfaithfulness and marries another woman does not commit adultery? In that it appears the reason Jesus states that it is adultery is because it is for something other than marital unfaithfulness.

[BBart]

Originally Posted by BillSPrestonEsq

Good, I want to be careful what I say.

Bye the way, thank you for that. A lot of people loose there sensitivity when discussing scripture. You never know who is on the other end. Hopefully anyone reading these threads understand we are just trying to be clear on what scripture says.

[tlj009]

That said, I really don't see anything in 1 Corinthians 7 that would supersede Jesus' statement that remarriage is adultery. The fact that he nowhere says they are free to remarry seems unusual, considering that Paul is clear on the subject as goes widows.

I am going to disagree with you a little bit here.

1Corithians 7[8] I say therefore to the unmarried and widows, It is good for them if they abide even as I.
[9] But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn.
[10] And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband:
[11] But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife.
[12] But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.
[13] And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him.

In verse 8, Paul addresses the unmarried and widows. In verse 10, Paul addresses the married. In that verse Paul makes the statement that not only is he making a command to them but also the Lord. I think that is directly referencing Jesus' teachings on marriage. That a man shouldn't divorce his wife. Then in verse 12, Paul addresses "the rest" and he also states that it is he who is making the command and not the Lord. Now I would think that unmarried, widows, and the married would cover just about everyone, so who is "the rest"? I think that it is simply the special case of an unbeliever married to a believer. And the statement "But to the rest speak I, not the Lord", I think indicates that he is addressing something that Jesus did not address in his teachings. Finally, Paul says that if the unbeliever chooses to leave, the believer is "not under bondage". What would that mean if not that the believer has absolutely no further obligation to the marriage? I think that Paul is indicating that the believer is free to remarry.

Romans 7[1] Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?
[2] For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.
[3] So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.

I think that this woman being not bound after her husband died is in the same situation as the believer not being in bondage if the unbeliever decides to leave.

But in reference to deacons, I think that if a deacon is in this situation there are several issues to consider. 1) He made a poor choice as to who he married 2) He may not be considered "blameless" by many, many people 3) There is an issue of him not running his household well.

[BillSPrestonEsq]

Originally Posted by tlj009

I am going to disagree with you a little bit here.



Romans 7[1] Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?
[2] For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.
[3] So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.

I think that this woman being not bound after her husband died is in the same situation as the believer not being in bondage if the unbeliever decides to leave.

But in reference to deacons, I think that if a deacon is in this situation there are several issues to consider. 1) He made a poor choice as to who he married 2) He may not be considered "blameless" by many, many people 3) There is an issue of him not running his household well.

The bolded part is where we disagree. My point is that Paul is not afraid to say who can remarry, and he specifically states that widows can. He never makes that provision for the divorced, and with your quotation of Romans 7:3, I honestly think it shows that the covenant of marriage is only broken by death.

Paul says the other party is free to go when they leave, however, they are still living, and thus remarriage is not in the picture in 1 Cor 7. In that passage, Paul is explicit that widows may remarry. He never gives that provision to the ones whose spouse left.

[tlj009]

The bolded part is where we disagree. My point is that Paul is not afraid to say who can remarry, and he specifically states that widows can. He never makes that provision for the divorced, and with your quotation of Romans 7:3, I honestly think it shows that the covenant of marriage is only broken by death.

Paul says the other party is free to go when they leave, however, they are still living, and thus remarriage is not in the picture in 1 Cor 7. In that passage, Paul is explicit that widows may remarry. He never gives that provision to the ones whose spouse left.

There is still the question of what are the free from? What is Paul talking about there? I'm sorry, I cut the passage off too early. I am referring to verse 15.

1Corithians 7[14] For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.
[15] But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.