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Old 07-29-2005, 01:09 AM   #1
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Conversion question

I have heard many stories of people converting from the unreformed persuasion to reformed (I am one such person).
But what happens when someone converts from reformed to unreformed?
My questions is: do they then become "deformed"?

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Old 07-29-2005, 09:47 AM   #2
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Not really. See, during conversions, one needs to refer to the proper formulas (usually found on a conversion table, or just on a regular table). Technically, they would be considered =-1.78ref±undet. However, as best expressed in modern vernacular, they might be either wiggidy wacked, or a dereffed ref. Perhaps even a transformer.
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